[Aug 30, 2024] Latest Questions CTFL_Syll_4.0 Guide to Prepare Free Practice Tests [Q14-Q38]

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[Aug 30, 2024] Latest Questions CTFL_Syll_4.0 Guide to Prepare Free Practice Tests

Reliable CTFL_Syll_4.0 Dumps Questions Available as Web-Based Practice Test Engine

NEW QUESTION # 14
The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

  • A. can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"
  • B. must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented
  • C. are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"
  • D. are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

Answer: A

Explanation:
The acceptance criteria associated with a user story are the conditions that must be met for the user story to be considered done and to deliver the expected value to the user. They are often written in different formats, such as rule-oriented, scenario-oriented, or table-oriented, depending on the nature and complexity of the user story. They represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation, which is one of the so called "3 C's" of user stories. The other two aspects are card and conversation. Card refers to the concise and informal description of the user story, usually following the template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]". Conversation refers to the ongoing dialogue between the stakeholders and the team members to clarify and refine the user story and its acceptance criteria. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 15
A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

  • A. Test analysis
  • B. Test implementation
  • C. Test monitoring and control
  • D. Test design

Answer: B

Explanation:
This answer is correct because test implementation is the activity where test work products, such as test cases, test data, test scripts, test harnesses, test stubs, or virtual services, are created and verified. Test implementation also involves setting up the test environment and preparing the test execution schedule. A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts that interact with that service are examples of test work products that are typically created during test implementation. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.3


NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?

  • A. Source code
  • B. Formal models
  • C. Compiled code
  • D. Test plans

Answer: D

Explanation:
Static analysis is the process of examining the work products of a software development or testing activity without executing them. Static analysis can be applied to various types of work products, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. However, test plans are not suitable for static analysis, because they are high-level documents that describe the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, and risks of a testing project. Test plans are not executable or formalized in a way that static analysis tools can analyze them. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 17
The whole-team approach:

  • A. is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories
  • B. promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques
  • C. promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product
  • D. is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

Answer: C

Explanation:
This answer is correct because the whole-team approach is a way of working in agile projects where all team members share the responsibility for the quality of the product, and collaborate on delivering value to the customer. The whole-team approach involves testers, developers, business analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in planning, designing, developing, testing, and delivering the product. The whole-team approach fosters communication, feedback, learning, and continuous improvement within the team. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.1


NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

  • A. Covering only start and end states
  • B. Can't be determined
  • C. Covering all states at least once
  • D. Covering all transitions at least once

Answer: D

Explanation:
Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions. Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3, page 49-50.


NEW QUESTION # 19
A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.
Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

  • A. The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed
  • B. You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue
  • C. You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification
  • D. You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

Answer: D

Explanation:
As a functional tester, you should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue. A defect report is a document that records the occurrence, nature, and status of a defect detected during testing, and provides information for further investigation and resolution. A defect report should include relevant information such as the defect summary, the defect description, the defect severity, the defect priority, the defect status, the defect origin, the defect category, the defect reproduction steps, the defect screenshots, the defect attachments, etc. Opening a defect report is a good practice for any tester who finds a defect in the software system, regardless of the type or level of testing performed. The other options are not recommended, because:
The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality, but that does not mean that as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed. Performance efficiency is a quality characteristic that measures how well the software system performs its functions under stated conditions, such as the response time, the resource utilization, the throughput, etc. Performance efficiency is an important aspect of the user experience, especially for web applications that run on different devices and networks. Even if the functional tests passed, meaning that the software system met the functional requirements, the performance issue observed on some devices could still affect the user satisfaction, the usability, the reliability, and the security of the software system. Therefore, as a functional tester, you have the responsibility to report the performance issue as a defect, and provide as much information as possible to help the developers or the performance testers to investigate and resolve it.


NEW QUESTION # 20
A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:
'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

  • A. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail
  • B. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code
  • C. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset
  • D. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

Answer: D

Explanation:
A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits1. A requirement is a condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or achieve an objective2. In this case, the requirement is that the diagnostics tests should execute in less than 2 seconds. Therefore, any event that violates this requirement is a failure. The only option that clearly violates this requirement is B. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute. If the diagnostic tests take more than 2 seconds to complete, then they do not meet the specified limit and thus fail. The other options are not necessarily failures related to the specified requirement. Option A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset is a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the functionality of the self-diagnostics module. Option C. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the accuracy of the memory tests. Option D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the quality of the test code. Reference = ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Requirements Engineering Fundamentals.


NEW QUESTION # 21
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

  • A. S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4
  • B. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1
  • C. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
  • D. S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re-opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.


NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

  • A. Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects
  • B. Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing
  • C. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics
  • D. Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because static testing and dynamic testing are both types of testing that can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics, such as usability, performance, security, reliability, etc. Static testing is a type of testing that involves the analysis of software work products, such as requirements, design, code, or test cases, without executing them. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves the execution of software work products, such as code or test cases, using inputs and verifying outputs. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be applied to different test levels and test types, and can use different test techniques and tools, to evaluate the non-functional characteristics of the software product. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section
2.2.1.1, Section 2.2.1.2


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

  • A. Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs
  • B. Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects
  • C. Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues
  • D. Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because error guessing is a test design technique where the experience and intuition of the tester are used to anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred or are likely to occur, and to design test cases to expose them. Error guessing can be based on factors such as the complexity of the system or component, the known or suspected weaknesses of the system or component, the previous history of defects, or the common types of errors in the domain or technology. Error guessing can be used as a complementary technique to other more systematic or formal techniques, or when there is insufficient information or time to apply them. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.5


NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

  • A. Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments
  • B. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation
  • C. Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released
  • D. Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because configuration management is a process of establishing and maintaining consistency of a product's performance, functional, and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation. This supports testing by providing traceability, consistency, and control over the test artifacts and the software under test. References: : ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.2


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

  • A. Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects
  • B. Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing
  • C. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics
  • D. Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

Answer: C

Explanation:
This answer is correct because static testing and dynamic testing are both types of testing that can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics, such as usability, performance, security, reliability, etc. Static testing is a type of testing that involves the analysis of software work products, such as requirements, design, code, or test cases, without executing them. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves the execution of software work products, such as code or test cases, using inputs and verifying outputs. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be applied to different test levels and test types, and can use different test techniques and tools, to evaluate the non-functional characteristics of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.1.1, Section 2.2.1.2


NEW QUESTION # 26
The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

  • A. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'
  • B. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'
  • C. is a false myth
  • D. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

Answer: B

Explanation:
The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle, is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'. This principle states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected, or that a small number of causes are responsible for most of the defects. This principle can be used to guide the test analysis and design activities, by prioritizing the testing of the most critical or risky modules, or by applying more rigorous test techniques to them. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 27
A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:
* [G1]: less than 300 euros
* [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros
* [G3]: greater than 2000 euros
Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario is 6.
This is because the decision table has 4 conditions (type of customer and amount of sale) and 4 actions (bonus percentage). The conditions have 2 possible values each (Basic or Premium, and G1, G2 or G3), so the total number of combinations is 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16. However, not all combinations are valid, as some of them are contradictory or impossible. For example, a sale cannot be both less than 300 euros and greater than 2000 euros at the same time. Therefore, we need to eliminate the invalid combinations and keep only the valid ones.
The valid combinations are:
Type of customer
Amount of sale
Bonus percentage
Basic
G1
3%
Basic
G2
5%
Basic
G3
7%
Premium
G1
5%
Premium
G2
7%
Premium
G3
10%
These 6 combinations cover all the possible values of the conditions and actions, and they are the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents,


NEW QUESTION # 28
During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

  • A. 100% Equivalence class coverage
  • B. 100% Boundary value coverage
  • C. 100% Statement coverage
  • D. 100% Stale transition coverage

Answer: C

Explanation:
Statement coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of executable statements in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is another structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of decision outcomes (such as branches or conditions) in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is a stronger metric than statement coverage, because it requires that every possible outcome of each decision is tested, while statement coverage only requires that every statement is executed at least once2. Therefore, if a test suite achieves 100% decision coverage, it also implies that it achieves 100% statement coverage, because every statement in every branch or condition must have been executed. However, the converse is not true: 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage, because some branches or conditions may have multiple outcomes that are not tested by the test suite2. For example, consider the following pseudocode:
if (x > 0) then print("Positive") else print("Non-positive") end if
A test suite that executes this code with x = 1 and x = -1 will achieve 100% statement coverage, because both print statements are executed. However, it will not achieve 100% decision coverage, because the condition x > 0 has only been tested with two outcomes: true and false. The third possible outcome, x = 0, has not been tested by the test suite. Therefore, the test suite may miss a potential bug or error in the condition or the branch.
The other options, such as stale transition coverage, equivalence class coverage, and boundary value coverage, are not guaranteed to be 100% by achieving 100% decision coverage. Stale transition coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of transitions between states in a state machine that are executed by a test suite3. Equivalence class coverage is a functional coverage metric that measures the percentage of equivalence classes (or partitions) of input or output values that are tested by a test suite4. Boundary value coverage is another functional coverage metric that measures the percentage of boundary values (or extreme values) of input or output ranges that are tested by a test suite4. These metrics are independent of decision coverage, because they are based on different aspects of the system under test, such as its behavior, functionality, or specification. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply achieving 100% of any of these metrics, and vice versa. Reference = ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Test Coverage in Software Testing - Guru99, Structural Coverage Metrics - MATLAB & Simulink - MathWorks India, Test Design Coverage in Software Testing - GeeksforGeeks.


NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

  • A. skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.
  • B. poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.
  • C. skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.
  • D. problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Project risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the project objectives, such as scope, schedule, cost, and quality. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, some of the factors that contribute to project risks are:
Skill and staff shortages: This factor refers to the lack of adequate or qualified human resources to perform the project tasks. This may result in delays, errors, rework, or low productivity.
Problems in defining the right requirements: This factor refers to the difficulties or ambiguities in eliciting, analyzing, specifying, validating, or managing the requirements of the project. This may result in misalignment, inconsistencies, gaps, or changes in the requirements, affecting the project scope and quality.
Contractual issues: This factor refers to the challenges or disputes that may arise from the contractual agreements between the project parties, such as clients, suppliers, vendors, or subcontractors. This may result in legal, financial, or ethical risks, affecting the project delivery and satisfaction.
The other options are not correct because they list factors that contribute to PRODUCT risks, not project risks. Product risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the quality or functionality of the software product or system. Some of the factors that contribute to product risks are:
Poor software quality characteristics: This factor refers to the lack of adherence or compliance to the quality attributes or criteria of the software product or system, such as reliability, usability, security, performance, or maintainability. This may result in defects, failures, or dissatisfaction of the users or stakeholders.
Software does not perform its intended functions: This factor refers to the deviation or discrepancy between the expected and actual behavior or output of the software product or system. This may result in errors, faults, or malfunctions of the software product or system.
Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.5: Risks and Testing, Pages 14-16.


NEW QUESTION # 30
Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

  • A. The test leader
  • B. The customer
  • C. The developer
  • D. The development manager

Answer: A

Explanation:
The test leader is the person who is responsible for planning, monitoring, and controlling the test activities and resources in a test project. The test leader should have the best knowledge of the test objectives, scope, risks, resources, schedule, and quality criteria. The test leader should also be aware of the test automation criteria, such as the execution frequency, the test support, the team education, the roles and responsibilities, and the devs and testers collaboration1. Based on these factors, the test leader can decide which tests are suitable for automation and which are not, and prioritize them accordingly. The test leader can also coordinate with the test automation engineers, the developers, and the stakeholders to ensure the alignment of the test automation strategy with the test project goals and expectations. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, Page 152; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 403; ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 6, Section 6.1.1, Page 514; Top 8 Test Automation Criteria You Need To Fulfill - QAMIND1


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

  • A. A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters
  • B. The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat
  • C. Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system
  • D. Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

Answer: C

Explanation:
A new navigation system compared with a previous system is the most suitable application for testing by use cases, because it involves a high level of interaction between the user and the system, and the expected behavior and outcomes of the system are based on the user's needs and goals. Use cases can help to specify the functional requirements of the new navigation system, such as the ability to enter a destination, select a route, follow the directions, receive alerts, etc. Use cases can also help to compare the accuracy and usability of the new system with the previous system, by defining the success and failure scenarios, the preconditions and postconditions, and the alternative flows of each use case. Use cases can also help to design and execute test cases that cover the main and exceptional paths of each use case, and to verify the satisfaction of the user's expectations.
The other options are not the most suitable applications for testing by use cases, because they do not involve a high level of interaction between the user and the system, or the expected behavior and outcomes of the system are not based on the user's needs and goals. A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based on a large number of subscriber parameters is more suitable for testing by data-driven testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and performance of a system or component by using a large set of input and output data. The ability of an antivirus package to detect and quarantine a new threat is more suitable for testing by exploratory testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and security of a system or component by using an informal and flexible approach, based on the tester's experience and intuition. The suitability and performance of a multimedia (audio video based) system to a new operating system is more suitable for testing by compatibility testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and performance of a system or component by using different hardware, software, or network environments. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.1.1, page 28-29; Section 4.1.1, page 44-45; Section 4.2.1, page 47-48.


NEW QUESTION # 32
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

  • A. cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
  • B. run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
  • C. are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques
  • D. are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid because they are more focused, isolated, and atomic. They usually test individual units or components of the software system, such as classes, methods, or functions. They are also easier to maintain and execute, as they have fewer dependencies and interactions with other parts of the system. The tests at the top layer of the test pyramid, on the other hand, are slower because they cover larger pieces of functionalities, such as user interfaces, workflows, or end-to-end scenarios. They also have more dependencies and interactions with other systems, such as databases, networks, or external services. They are more complex and costly to maintain and execute, as they require more setup and teardown procedures, test data, and test environments. References:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.2.1, Test Pyramid1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Pyramid2


NEW QUESTION # 33
You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.
Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room
Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

  • A. Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.
  • B. Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.
  • C. Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room
  • D. Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the decision table in the image, a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room is eligible for an upgrade to Gold Luxury (YES), while a non-Preferred Guest Card holder, regardless of room type, is not eligible for any upgrade (NO). Therefore, Customer A (a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room) would be offered an upgrade to Gold Luxury, and Customer B (a non-Preferred Guest Card holder with a Platinum room) would not be offered any upgrade. Reference = The answer is derived directly from the decision table provided in the image; specific ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents are not referenced.


NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following statements is true?

  • A. A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure
  • B. Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels
  • C. Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions
  • D. A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

Answer: C

Explanation:
Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions. A failure is an event in which the software system does not perform a required function or performs a function incorrectly, according to the expected behavior. A defect is a flaw in the software system or a deviation from the requirements or the specifications, that may cause a failure. However, not all failures are caused by defects, as some failures may be caused by environmental conditions, such as hardware malfunctions, network interruptions, power outages, incompatible configurations, etc. Environmental conditions are factors that affect the operation of the software system, but are not part of the software system itself. The other statements are false, because:
A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure. This statement is false, because a defect may or may not produce a failure, depending on the inputs, the outputs, the states, or the scenarios of the software system, and a bug is just another term for a defect, so it has the same possibility of producing a failure as a defect. For example, a defect in a rarely used feature or a hidden branch of the code may never produce a failure, while a defect in a frequently used feature or a critical path of the code may produce a failure often. A bug is not a different concept from a defect, but rather a synonym or a colloquial term for a defect, so it has the same definition and implications as a defect.
A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error. This statement is false, because an error is not a consequence of a failure, but rather a cause of a defect. An error is a human action or a mistake that produces a defect in the software system, such as a typo, a logic flaw, a requirement misunderstanding, etc. An error is not observable in the software system, but rather in the human mind or the human work products, such as the code, the design, the documentation, etc. A failure is not a cause of an error, but rather a result of a defect, which is a result of an error. For example, an error in the code may cause a defect in the software system, which may cause a failure in the software behavior.
Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels. This statement is false, because bugs and failures are not different types of defects, but rather different terms for defects and their manifestations. As mentioned before, bugs are just another word for defects, and failures are the events in which the software system does not perform as expected due to defects. Bugs and failures can be found at any test level, not only at component testing or higher test levels. Test levels are the stages of testing that correspond to the levels of integration of the software system, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Defects and failures can occur and be detected at any test level, depending on the test objectives, the test basis, the test techniques, and the test environment. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles1 ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Failure, Defect, Bug, Environmental Condition, Error, Test Level2


NEW QUESTION # 35
Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.
Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

  • A. Inspection
  • B. Walkthrough
  • C. Informal review
  • D. Audit

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the characteristics of a walkthrough. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2


NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

  • A. Determining the people who will be involved in the review
  • B. Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting
  • C. Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review
  • D. Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

Answer: D

Explanation:
This answer is correct because identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review is one of the tasks the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review. The Author is the person who creates the work product to be reviewed, such as a requirement specification, a design document, or a test case. The Author's tasks include preparing the work product for the review, identifying potential anomalies in the work product, and fixing the anomalies found in the work product after the review. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.1


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

  • A. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process
  • B. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics
  • C. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it
  • D. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

Answer: C

Explanation:
This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3


NEW QUESTION # 38
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